What always amazes me about threads like this is that they go on for pages with dozens of posts explaining what the so-called objectivist position is, and yet the so-called subjectivists never seem to comprehend it, let alone offer any meaningful counter-argument.
So, because I like banging my head against other people's brick skulls, let me try again to explain it in simple terms that even an audiophile should be able to understand, if he wants to.
If two amps sound different to you, there are three and only three possible explanations:
1) The amps are not playing at precisely the same volume.
2) You are imagining a difference (which may include misremembering what you heard earlier, even minutes earlier).
3) One or both amps is producing audible levels of distortion.
That's it. Unless you want to claim that you live in a universe where effects don't have causes, those are your only three options.
The most common logical error subjectivists make is to assume a priori that if they hear a difference, the cause is #3. But you can't just assume away the other possibilities. If you want to make the claim that there are audible levels of distortion, you have to conduct your comparison in a way that eliminates #1 and #2 as possibilities. (And we should all know by this time what that way is.)
The other key point is that instances of #3 are rare, especially if you are using modern equipment. The two most common causes of amplifier distortion are:
(a) Impedance mismatches with speakers, causing frequency response errors.
(b) Distortion caused by pushing an amp beyond its capabilities.
Possibility (a) is nearly unheard of among modern solid-state amps. And (b) turns out to be a lot less common than you might think, because when you're listening to music it takes a substantial amount of clipping before it becomes audible.
So going back to the three possibilities above, not only is it the case that you can't eliminate #1 and #2 without doing a blind, level-matched comparison, but they are also far more likely explanations than #3.
So, because I like banging my head against other people's brick skulls, let me try again to explain it in simple terms that even an audiophile should be able to understand, if he wants to.
If two amps sound different to you, there are three and only three possible explanations:
1) The amps are not playing at precisely the same volume.
2) You are imagining a difference (which may include misremembering what you heard earlier, even minutes earlier).
3) One or both amps is producing audible levels of distortion.
That's it. Unless you want to claim that you live in a universe where effects don't have causes, those are your only three options.
The most common logical error subjectivists make is to assume a priori that if they hear a difference, the cause is #3. But you can't just assume away the other possibilities. If you want to make the claim that there are audible levels of distortion, you have to conduct your comparison in a way that eliminates #1 and #2 as possibilities. (And we should all know by this time what that way is.)
The other key point is that instances of #3 are rare, especially if you are using modern equipment. The two most common causes of amplifier distortion are:
(a) Impedance mismatches with speakers, causing frequency response errors.
(b) Distortion caused by pushing an amp beyond its capabilities.
Possibility (a) is nearly unheard of among modern solid-state amps. And (b) turns out to be a lot less common than you might think, because when you're listening to music it takes a substantial amount of clipping before it becomes audible.
So going back to the three possibilities above, not only is it the case that you can't eliminate #1 and #2 without doing a blind, level-matched comparison, but they are also far more likely explanations than #3.



















