Hi I am sorry for opening a can of worms but just play along please? I know that "all amps give the same sound", I really want to believe that but what are some science that could explain otherwise?
Background - I am unable to afford a Sonus Faber Cremona M system with its amping and interconnects etc so I now have moved on to HEAD-Fi ... for those who know, I use Fiio E17 plugged into laptop as a DAC for my lossless and AMP for my Sennheiser HD600. (The Fiio specs are spectacular, inc THD < 0.004%)
Q1:
Now with floor speakers the lower the impedance the harder to drive because it sucks more current. Why is it with headphones the higher the impedance the harder to drive?
Q2:
I keep reading that my headphones scale well with higher grade amps. I keep reading with amps 3x more expensive than my headphones I will get better bass better treble better soundstage - really? (I know the best way is to listen but I live in an area remote to any headphone amps shops - the nearest is a 4 hour flight to another country across the sea)
AVSforum suggests the speakers need to be 3x more expensive than the amps not the other way round. But perhaps headphones are so cheap and amps are the same price big or small hence the ratio is opposite - let's just say we accept that premise.
Can an amp deliver "better sound" if the analogue source is the same AND there is no clipping? (In fact I believe the analogue source would be degraded if I connect my Fiio DAC to the amp there are interconnects involved and hence might degrade signal)
(For those in the know I am looking at the Schiit Asgard)
Q3.
What about 'high current' amps can they in theory make my headphones or speakers sound better? How do you know if something is a high current amp?
Thank you for ANY valid explanation and accepting my premises unconditionally
Background - I am unable to afford a Sonus Faber Cremona M system with its amping and interconnects etc so I now have moved on to HEAD-Fi ... for those who know, I use Fiio E17 plugged into laptop as a DAC for my lossless and AMP for my Sennheiser HD600. (The Fiio specs are spectacular, inc THD < 0.004%)
Q1:
Now with floor speakers the lower the impedance the harder to drive because it sucks more current. Why is it with headphones the higher the impedance the harder to drive?
Q2:
I keep reading that my headphones scale well with higher grade amps. I keep reading with amps 3x more expensive than my headphones I will get better bass better treble better soundstage - really? (I know the best way is to listen but I live in an area remote to any headphone amps shops - the nearest is a 4 hour flight to another country across the sea)
AVSforum suggests the speakers need to be 3x more expensive than the amps not the other way round. But perhaps headphones are so cheap and amps are the same price big or small hence the ratio is opposite - let's just say we accept that premise.
Can an amp deliver "better sound" if the analogue source is the same AND there is no clipping? (In fact I believe the analogue source would be degraded if I connect my Fiio DAC to the amp there are interconnects involved and hence might degrade signal)
(For those in the know I am looking at the Schiit Asgard)
Q3.
What about 'high current' amps can they in theory make my headphones or speakers sound better? How do you know if something is a high current amp?
Thank you for ANY valid explanation and accepting my premises unconditionally













i will do that in the next 12 months ... thanks for being so helpful!







