Since you are an advocate for the existence of an audible difference, you are a far better listener for a blind test providing the results you claim. So, where are your results?
Why is it that people who agree with you are congenitally incapable of doing level matched, time synched, bias controlled tests that back up their claims?
How do YOU prove that they can't?
I don't. I don't want to prove that they can't. I'm not sure that I could ever prove that they can't.
I take it that you never ever seriously thought this issue through. I take it that you don't know that negative hypotheses are difficult or impossible to prove. I didn't go there. I don't want to go there. My enthusiasm for fool's missions is low.
I also take your post above as prima facie evidence that your reading comprehension is zero. Right, zero point zero. Nothing. Nada. Because my post does not mention proving that people can't hear something. It's an irrelevant and basically stupid issue that your post plucked out of the air and suddenly you demand that I treat it like its the most important thing in the world. If you don't respect my post, I feel no compulsion to respect your irrelevant post.
The post you falsely purported to respond to asks for you prove that you can hear what you claim is audible. That's the exact opposite of what you are talking about.
Please respond when you learn how to read and comprehend what others write.