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Probably is, but I just don't get it! I am installing two Vandersteen W2q subwoofers on my two channel system. These are to be wired in parallel with the two Infinity towers. It is suggested that better performance will result if separate wires are run from the amplifier to the sub and from the ammplifier to the tower rather than just a wire to the tower and then on to the sub. I guess this makes sense because this way the wire length to the sub would be greater than length to the tower. BUT, why not a single wire to the vicinity of the speakers and then a 'Y' with equal length wire to the tower and to the sub? Electrically would not the juncture of this 'Y' be the same as the juncture of the terminal of the amplifier if two separate wires were run all the way to the tower and to the sub from the amplifier? What am I missing conceptually? Thanks.
 

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Vandersteen 2Wq speakers have high impedance inputs. They don't draw much current. You can feed them with relatively small wires (16-20guage, 20 being smaller)


Your main speakers are low impedance. They draw a lot of current. You need to feed them with thick wires. (10-14guage, 14 being smaller)


Splicing cables in the middle is relatively unreliable. It's better to use connections that fasten to the binding posts of the amp.


Using separate cables also gives you more flexibility in the placement of the subwoofers. Subs have to go where they sound best, not necessarily next to the main speakers.


I hope this clarifies things a little.
 
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