Sure. The cause of sighted /expectation bias is that the subject sees a particular product and, say if it's more expensive, expects it to sound better. According to the theory, this unconscious bias then causes them to hear things that aren't really there(proven by blind testing). So we accept that the mind can hear things that aren't there if it believes it should be.Elaborate, if you please?
In a blind test -- the tested subject doesn't know which is which, and thus sighted/expectation bias is eliminated to the subject tested. If it is setup fairly by the testers, and they aren't giving clues ----- I'm not sure what type of bias you are referring to?
But what about the converse situation? Why is it no one questions whether there is a blind expectation bias? If the subject believes that blind testing will show no difference then it is just as reasonable to expect them to unconsciously hear no difference, even if one exists. And how do we neutralize it? What's the "blind test" for the blind test?